neet chemistry

BIOLOGY XII
CHAPTER-HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES
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PART A
1. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
a) Elephantiasis 

b) Ascariasis 

c) Ringworm disease

 d) Amoebiasis


2. Passive immunity is defined as immunity,
a) Inherited from the parents.
b) Achieved through vaccination.
c) Acquired through first exposure to the disease.
d) Achieved through the sera of other animals enriched in antibodies.


3. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
A) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
B) When the infected retro virus enters host cells
C) When HIV damages large number of helper T – lymphocytes
D) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase


4. Match the disease in column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/ treatment) in column II.
Column I Column II
(P) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
(Q) Diphtheria (ii) Protozoan disease
(R) Cholera (iii) DPT vaccine
(S) Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy


A) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv)

 B) P -(ii), Q -(iii), C-(iv), S-(i)
C) P -(i), Q -(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)

 D) P -(ii), Q -(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)


5. Which one of the following diseases is due to an allergic reaction?
A) Enteric fever 

B) Skin cancer

 C) Goiter

 D) Hay fever


6. MALT constitutes about ______ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
A) 20% 

B) 70%

 C) 10%

 D) 50%


7. Anti-venom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain
A) gamma globulin

 B) attenuated pathogens
C) activated pathogens 

D) harvested antibodies


8. Carcinoma refers to
A) malignant tumors of the connective tissue
B) malignant tumors of the epithelial cells of skin or mucous membrane
C) malignant tumors of the colon and bones
D) benign tumors of the connective tissue


9. Antigens are present
A) inside the cytoplasm 

B) on nuclear membrane
C) inside the nucleus 

D) on cell surface


10. Which is showing accurate pairing?
A) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum 

B) AIDS – Bacillus conjugalis
C) Gonorrhoea – Leishmania donovani 

D) Typhoid – Mycobacterium leprae


11. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
A) Mutations inactivate the cell control.
B) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.
C) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.
D) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor


12. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
A) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
B) Red blood corpuscles of human suffering from malaria
C) Spleen of infected humans
D) Salivary glands of freshly molted female Anopheles mosquito


13. Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers?
A) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) 

B) Radiography (X-ray)
C) Computed tomography (CT)

 D) Histopathological studies


14. Select the correct statement from the ones given below.
A) Barbiturates, when given to criminals, make them tell the truth.
B) Morphine is often given to persons, who have undergone surgery, as a pain killer.
C) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate.
D) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery


15. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
A) Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness 

B) Culex pipiens – Filariasis
C) Aedes aegypti – Dengue fever 

D) Anopheles culifacies – Leishmaniasis


16. The blood cancer is known as
A) haemolysis

 B) haemophilia

 C) leukaemia

 D) thrombosis


17. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown here?

A) Hallucinogen

 B) Depressant

 C) Stimulant

 D) Painkiller


18. Which of the following causes plague?
A) Trichinella spiralis

 B) Salmonella typhimurium
C) Yersinia pestis

 D) Leishmania donovani


19. Salmonella is related with
A) typhoid 

B) polio

 C) T.B 

D) tetanus


20. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A) Benign tumors show the property of metastasis.
B) Heroin accelerates body functions
C) Malignant tumors may exhibit metastasis
D) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain


21. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?
A) Babesiosis 

B) Blastomycosis

 C) Syphilis 

D) Influenza


22. Interferons are synthesized in response to
A) mycoplasma 

B) bacteria 

C) viruses

 D) fungi


23. Which one of the following options gives the correct match of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection?
Disease Causative organism Mode of infection
P) Typhoid Salmonella typhi with inspired air
Q) Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniae Droplet infection
R) Elephantiasis Wuchereria bancrofti with infected water and food
S) Malaria Plasmodium vivax Bite of male Anopheles mosquito
A) P

 B) Q 

C) R 

D) S


24. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
A) Common cold, AIDS 

B) Dysentery, common cold
C) Typhoid, tuberculosis

 D) Ringworm, AIDS


25. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid)
A) Salmonella typhi / Widal test 

B) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test

 D) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test


26. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by
A) Tse-tse fly
B) mosquito bite
C) drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
D) eating imperfectly cooked pork


27. Which one of the following statements is incorrect with respect to AIDS?
A) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person.
B) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection.
C) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition.
D) All of these


28. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to
A) passive immune response 

B) innate immune response
C) humoral immune response

 D) cell-mediated immune response


29. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?
A) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
B) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
C) HIV is un-enveloped retro virus.
D) HTV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response


30. If a person shows production of interferons in his body, the chances are that he has got an infection of
A) Tetanus 

B) malaria

 C) typhoid

 D) measles


31. The germ Plasmodium was discovered by
a) Sir Ronald Ross 

b) Golgi
c) Charles Laveran

d) Patric Manson


32. Malignant tertian malaria is caused by
a) Plasmodium vivax

 b) Plasmodium ovale
c) Plasmodium malariae 

d) Plasmodium falciparum


33. Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum affects the
A) lymph gland 

B) central nervous system
C) spleen 

D) intestine


34. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A) Syphilis – Trichuris trichiura

 B) Sleeping sickness – Trypanosoma gambiense
C) Dengue fever – Arbo virus

 D) Plague – Yersinia pestis


35. Christmas disease is another name for
A) Hemophilia B 

B) hepatitis B
C) Down’s syndrome

 D) sleeping sickness


PART B


36. Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic drug?
A) Caffeine 

B) Morphine
C) Lysergic acid diethylamide

 D) Opium


37. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to
A) a reduction in hemoglobin content of blood
B) a reduction in stem cell production
C) loss of antibody mediated immunity
D) loss of cell mediated immunity


38. The antibodies molecules are represented as
A) Y-shaped molecule

 B) S-shaped molecule
C) Z- Shaped molecule

 D) shape less molecule


39. Father of immunology is
a) Ferdinand Kohn 

b) Robert Koch

 c) Louis Pasteur 

d) Edward Jenner


40. The term ‘active immunity’ means
A) Increasing rate of heart beat 

B) increasing quantity of blood
C) Resistance developed after disease

 D) resistance developed before disease


41. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon
A) Food in intestine
B) Blood only
C) Erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of colon
D) Mucosa and submucosa of colon only


42. Immunological destruction of body tissue or product due to antibodies reacting with it as antigen is called
A) Anaphylaxis 

B) Autoimmune diseases
C) Prophylaxis 

D) Immunodeficiency disease


43. Antibodies in our body are complex
A) Glycoproteins

 B) lipoproteins

 C) steroids

 D) prostaglandins


44. A psychological and emotional need of drug using person is known as
A) Habituation

 B) Dependence 

C) Psychotherapy

 D) Tolerance


45. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying
A) helper T-lymphocytes 

B) B-lymphocytes
C) Leucocytes 

D) thrombocytes


46. Pick the following is non-communicable acquired disease
A) Ringworm 

B) Diabetes

 C) Scurvy 

D) both b and c


47. Acid in stomach kills microbes and this is belongs to
A) Natural Acquired immunity
B) Innate immunity and Physiological barrier
C) Non-inherited immunity and passive type
D) Innate immunity and physical barrier


48. In colostrum, the antibodies that protect the newborn from certain diseases are of what type?
a) Ig G type

 b) Ig A type

 c) Ig D type 

d) Ig E type


49. Ringworm disease in humans is caused by the pathogen Microsporum, which belongs to the same kingdom of organisms as?
a) Taenia, a tapeworm 

b) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
c) Rhizopus, a mould 

d) Ascaris, a roundworm


50. Assertion (A): Human immuno deficiency virus known to cause AIDS.
Reason (R): It reduces the count of T- killer cells.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false

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KEY- HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES
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Q. No

Key

Q. No

Key

Q. No

Key

Q. No

Key

Q. No

Key

1

A

11

B

21

A

31

C

41

C

2

D

12

A

22

C

32

D

42

B

3

C

13

A

23

B

33

B

43

A

4

B

14

B

24

A

34

A

44

B

5

D

15

D

25

A

35

A

45

A

6

D

16

C

26

C

36

C

46

D

7

B

17

A

27

D

37

D

47

B

8

B

18

C

28

D

38

A

48

B

9

D

19

A

29

B

39

D

49

C

10

A

20

C

30

D

40

C

50

C

 

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