neet chemistry

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
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PART A
1. Reproductive health is the well-being of
a) Physical aspects

 b) Emotional and behavioral aspects
c) Social aspects 

d) All of the above 


2. Periodic abstinence is avoiding sex during
a) Follicular phase 

b) ovulatory phase
c) Menstrual phase 

d) none of the above


3. MTP stands for

a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy

b) Mental Trauma Phase
c) Menstrual Trauma Pain 

d) Menstrual Temporary Pain


4. Incidence of STIs are very high among persons, in the age group of
a) 15-35 years

 c) 15-24 years

 b) 15-30 years

 d) 15-45 years


5. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted by reproductive technology is called:
a) GIFT

 b) ZIFT

 c) ICSI

 d) ET


6. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
a) Suppression of gonadotropins

 b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins

c) Suppression of gametic transport 

d) suppression of fertilization


7. The technique used to block the passage of sperm in male
a) Tubectomy

 b) vasectomy

 c) coitus interruptus

 d) rhythm method


8. In case of a couple where a man is having very low sperm count, which of the following technique will be suitable for fertilization?
a) Intra uterine transfer

 b) Gamete intra cytoplasmic fallopian transfer
c) Artificial insemination

 d) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection


9. Which of the following statements is wrong?
a) Test-tube baby grows inside test-tube
b) Test-tube baby grows within mother’s womb
c) Test-tube baby grows within surrogate mother’s womb
d) Test-tube baby grows following uterine fertilization


10. Find out the correct statements about tubectomy.
I. The failure rate of this approach is almost zero percent.
II. It is also known as tubal ligation.
III. It is more difficult than vasectomy and is even more difficult to reverse.
a) I and II b) II and III c) I and III d) All of these


11. In which techniques, the donor semen is artificially introduced into the uterus?
a) Intravaginal insemination 

b) Intrauterine insemination
c) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

 d) Gamete intra fallopian transfer


12. IUDs which are used by females
a) act as spermicidal jellies
b) block the entry of sperms into vagina
c) are implanted under the skin and they release progestogen and estrogen
d) release copper ions in the uterus that increase phagocytosis of sperms


13. Oral contraceptive pills for females developed at CDRI, Lucknow is –
a) Mala-D 

b) Cortisol

 c) Saheli 

d) None of these


14. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the –
a) first trimester 

b) second trimester 

c) third trimester 

d) None of these


15. In which ‘Assisted Reproductive Technology’ (ART), ’’Test-Tube Baby’ procedure is applied?
a) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
b) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
c) In Vitro Fertilization and Embryo Transfer (IVF-ET)
d) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)


16. Oral contraceptive pill is composed of –
a) estrogen and progesterone

 b) estrogen and testosterone
c) progesterone and testosterone

 d) estrogen and growth hormone


17. The term ‘Test-Tube Baby’ implies that –
a) fertilization of ovum takes place in the uterus but develops in the test-tube.
b) fertilization of ovum takes place in the test-tube, but it develops in test-tube itself.
c) fertilization of ovum takes place in the test-tube, but it develops in the uterus.
d) fertilization of ovum takes place in the uterus and embryo develops in the uterus.


18. Saheli is a –
a) oral contraceptive for females.
b) surgical sterilization method for females.
c) diaphragm for females.
d) surgical method of sterilization in males.


19. ZIFT is –
a) transfer of zygote into the Fallopian tube.
b) transfer of embryo into the uterus.
c) transfer of mixture of sperms and ova into the Fallopian tube.
d) transfer of mixture of sperms and ova into the uterus.


20. Which of these is used to control human population?
a) Estrogen and progesterone b) LNG-20 and MTP
c) Tubectomy and vasectomy d) All of the above


21. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will:
a) Cause rapid increase in growth rate
b) Result in decline in growth rate
c) Not cause significant change in growth rate
d) Result in an explosive population


22. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the:
a) Suppression of gonadotropins 

b) Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
c) Suppression of gametic transport 

d) Suppression of fertilization


23. Sterilization techniques are generally fool proof methods of contraception with least side effects. Yet, this is the last option for the couples because –
i. It is almost irreversible
ii. Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge/drive
iii. It is a surgical procedure
iv. Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country
Choose the correct option:
a) i and iii b) ii and iii c) ii and iv d) i, ii, iii and iv


24. Which statement is false for GIFT?

a) It is Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer b) Ovum is transferred into the oviduct
c) Zygote is transferred into Fallopian tube d) Used when the receptive is sterile


25. A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in:
a) 1950s 

b) 1960s 

c) 1980s 

d) 1990s


26. At what stage in test-tube babies, the zygote is implanted in human female?
a) 32-celled stage 

b) 64-celled stage 

c) 100-celled stage

 d) 164-celled stage


27. Choose the right one among the statements given below:
a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced


28. Following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose the correct options given below:
i. MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
ii. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
iii. MTPs are always surgical
iv. MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
a) ii and iii b) ii and iii c) i and iv d) i and ii


29. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs:
a) Syphilis 

b) AIDS 

c) Gonorrhea

 d) Genital warts


30. Tablets to prevent contraception contain –
a) Progesterone

 b) FSH 

c) LH 

d) Both b and c


31. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing fetus by amniocentesis?
a) Jaundice 

b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Sex of the fetus

 d) Down syndrome


32. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is:
a) Ovarieetomy 

b) Hysterectomy

 c) Vasectomy 

d) Castration


33. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below:
i. They are introduced into the uterus
ii. They are placed to cover the cervical region
iii. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
iv. They act as spermicidal agents
a) i and ii b) i and iii c) ii and iii d) iii & iv


34. The sexually transmitted disease that can affect both the male and the female genitals and may damage the eyes of babies born of infected mothers is
a) Gonorrhea

 b) Hepatitis 

c) AIDS 

d) Syphilis


35. Match the contraceptive methods given under Column-I with their examples given under Column-II. Select the correct choice from those given below:
Column-I (Contraceptive Method) Column-II (Examples)
A. Chemical p. Tubectomy and vasectomy
B. IUDs q. Copper T and Loop
C. Barriers r. Condom and Cervical cap
D. Sterilization s. Spermicidal Jelly and foam
t. Coitus interruptus and calendar method
a) A = p, B = r, C = q, D = t

 b) A = s, B = q, C = t, D = p
c) A = s, B = q, C = r, D = p 

d) A = s, B = t, C = q, D = r


PART B

36. One of the legal methods of birth control is
a) by a premature ejaculation during coitus.
b) Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine.
c) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.
d) by having coitus at the time of day break.


37. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD?
a) LNG-20 

b) Multiload-375

 c) Lippes loop 

d) Cu-7


38. Assisted Reproductive Technology does not include
a) Zygote extra fallopian transfer.

 b) In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer.
c) Artificial insemination

d) Gamete intra fallopian transfer.


39. Amniocentesis is one of the methods
a) for fetal sex determination 

b) adapted for MTP
c) used for safe parturition 

d) of birth control


40. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?
a) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid 

b) No sperm occurs in epididymis
c) Vasa differentia is cut and tied 

d) Irreversible sterility


41. What is the function of copper – T?
a) Checks mutation 

b) Stops fertilization
c) Stops zygote formation 

d) Stops oblituation of blastocoel


42. Action of vaginal diaphragm is –
a) Prevent the ova to come in the uterus
b) Prevent the sperm to come in contact with ova
c) Spermicidal
d) Anti-implantation


43. Surgical removal or cutting and ligation of the ends of oviduct is known as –
a) Tubectomy

 b) Oviductomy

\ c) Vasectomy

 d) Ovarieetomy


44. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in-vitro fertilization is transferred into
a) Uterus 

b) Fallopian tube 

c) Fimbriae 

d) Cervix


45. The latest technique to produce the child is GIFT. The full form is –
a) Gametic internal fertilization and transfer
b) Gametic intra-fallopian transfer
c) Gametic internal fallopian transplant
d) General internal fallopian transfer


46. The mechanical measure of population control includes –
a) Condom only 

b) Diaphragm only

 c) IUD only 

d) All of the above


47. The chemical method of contraception includes –
a) Jellies only 

b) Creams and foams only
c) Oral contraceptives only 

d) All of the above


48. Through amniocentesis fetal cells can be cultured and tested for detecting various diseases of fetus by –
a) Karyotype

 b) Enzyme production

 c) DNA analysis

 d) All of these


49. The success of birth control programmes in controlling population growth is dependent on –
a) Use of contraceptives
b) Tubectomy
c) Vasectomy
d) Acceptability of the above by the people


50. Trade name of weekly oral contraceptive pill is –
a) Mala

 b) Saheli 

c) Mala A

 d) Mala D

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ANSWER KEY- REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
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Q. No

Key

Q. No

Key

Q. No

Key

Q. No

Key

Q. No

Key

1

D

11

B

21

B

31

A

41

B

2

B

12

D

22

A

32

C

42

B

3

A

13

C

23

D

33

C

43

A

4

B

14

A

24

C

34

D

44

A

5

C

15

C

25

A

35

C

45

B

6

A

16

A

26

A

36

B

46

B

7

B

17

C

27

B

37

A

47

D

8

C

18

A

28

C

38

A

48

D

9

D

19

A

29

B

39

A

49

D

10

D

20

D

30

A

40

B

50

B

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